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Re: (TFT) When to deduct for a thrown spell
>All of this talk about Control Spells has got me to thinking ...
Me too. I have my own question at the end.
>Lets say that my wizard casts a Control Spell on a character
>with some Talent, X and then, on a later turn, orders that
>character to perform an action requiring that talent.
>If, however, the wizard controls the character by placing
>an overriding thought, idea or desire into the controlled
>character, then the character might be able to use all of
>their talents to their maximum ability in order to
>accomplish that task.
I think this option is correct. You command the character to perform the
action, and they do it to the best of their abilities. I assume that this
implies a kind of one-way telepathy, unless the wizard has to verbally
communicate the orders, which would prove quite difficult in the heat of combat.
Whether it is telepathy or not, unless the casting wizard had previously
seen the target of the spell use a talent, they would have no way of knowing
it the figure had the needed talent. This could lead to some interesting
situations if the wizard assumes that the controlled figure has a certain
talent and they don't.
Wizard: "Pick that man's pocket!"
Og "Stone Hands" the Ork: "OK", walks over, sticks hand in targets pocket
and gets cleaved in half by enraged attempted pickee.
My own questions sort of relate to this. Can a victim willing not resist
the control attempt? ie. can they elect not to make their saving roll?
Normally I would say sort of, the victim still subconciously would resist
the roll, but would only resist on an automatic success (5 or less).
However, what then happens if a figure is already controlled? Can the
wizard controlling the figure order that figure not to resist and then let
another wizard more easily take control? This would be useful if the first
wizard was running low on fatigue and would allow his allies to control a
figure for much longer (for example if you have control of a powerful enemy).
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